SECUREIAS TEST-01

 

1. Consider the following statements about private members:
2. MPs who are not ministers are called private members.
3. Private members can introduce a constitutional amendment bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer & Explanation

2. c) Both 1 and 2.

Every Member of Parliament, who is not a Minister, is called a Private Member. Private members CAN introduce a constitutional amendment bill.

In Lok Sabha, the last two and a half hours of a sitting on every Friday are generally allotted for transaction of “Private Members’ Business”, i.e., Private Members’ Bills and Private Members’ Resolutions

 

2. Indian constitution is a combination of

federal and non-federal features. Point out the non-federal features from these:

 

1. All India Services
2. Flexibility of the constitution
3. Supremacy of constitution
4. Bicameralism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 1 and 3 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1 and 4 only

 

Answer & Explanation

1. 1 and 2 only.

All India Services increases the power of Centre by allowing them some control over state administration, thus its non-federal.

 

A flexible constitution which can be easily changed by the Centre without state’s consultation, skews power in respect of states and thus in non-federal. The rest two – Supremacy of constitution and Bicameralism are federal features.

 

Unitary or Non-federal features:

Strong Centre

• States Not Indestructible
• Single Constitution
• Flexibility of the Constitution
• No Equality of State Representation
• Emergency Provisions
• Single Citizenship
• Integrated Judiciary

 

3. Which among the following is an informal device in Indian parliamentary practice?
4. Question hour
5. Zero hour
6. Half-an-hour discussion

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1 and 2 only

Answer & Explanation

b). 2 Only

When a member feels that the answer given to a question is not complete or does not give the desired information, he may be allowed by the Speaker to raise a discussion in the House for half an hour. The procedure is, therefore, termed as ‘Half-an-Hour Discussion’. Zero hour is an informal device, not mentioned in any rules of the Parliament. Question hour, the first hour of a sitting, of course is the most important formal device

 

4. Fundamental Duties (FDs) were added in 1976. Which among these are FDs?
5. to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest
6. to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country
7. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 2 and 3 only
3. c) 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Answer & Explanation

1. 3 only.

1 and 2 are DPSP. Environment protection is both in FD and DPSP, so often people gets confused. The FD related to environment is ” to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creature

 

5. With reference to cut motions, consider the following statements :
6. Cut motions are moved only in Lok Sabha.
7. The speaker decides whether a cut motion is admissible or not.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer & Explanation

2. Both 1 and 2.

Cut motion is a power given to the members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand in the financial bill discussed by the government. If a cut motion is adopted by the House and the government does not have the numbers, it is obliged to resign. The Speaker shall decide whether a cut motion is or is not admissible under the rules and may disallow any cut motion when in his opinion it is an abuse of the right of moving cut motion

 

6. The central government has decided to move the following bills in the coming session of parliament. Which of these can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha ?
7. a bill for imposition of fine for spitting on roads as part of Swachha Bharat Abhiyan
8. a bill for limiting the borrowing of money by government to reduced fiscal deficit.
9. a bill for imposition of luxury tax on expensive items

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 1 and 3 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer & Explanation

1. c) 2 and 3 only.

Basically the question is asking you that which of those are money bill. The definition and details of money bill are given in article 110. Money bill includes –     (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money by the Government of India (c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India (d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India; (e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India (g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f). Imposition of fines/penalties are NOT considered money bill.

 

7. Suppose the Lok Sabha has been adjourned by the speaker. Then which of the following would take place
8. all pending notices would lapse.
9. a bill pending in lok sabha lapses.
10. a bill passed by both houses but pending assent by president does not lapse

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 1 and 3 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) None

 

Answer & Explanation

1.  

Yes, none because adjournment just terminates a sitting. Prorogation terminates a session in which all pending notices gets lapsed. It is in dissolution, (which ends the very life of lok sabha ) that certain types of pending bill gets lapsed.

 

8. With reference to resolutions ,consider the following statements :
9. All resolutions are motion.
10. All resolutions are required to be voted upon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer & Explanation

2. c) Both 1 and 2.

Reslutoions are a type of motion – the substantive motion. A substantive motion is a self-contained independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House. They are required to be voted upon by the house.

 

9. With reference to Armed Forces Special powers Act (AFSPA), who among the following can declare an area as ‘disturbed area’?
10. Governor
11. Chief Minister
12. Central Government

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 1 and 3 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer & Explanation

1. b) 1 and 3 only.

The power to declare an area ‘disturbed’ lies with the Governor or the Central Government, who have to form an opinion that the use of armed forces in the aid of civil power is essential and then notify it as ‘disturbed area’. The declaration of an area as a ‘disturbed area’ is for a limited duration and review of the declaration before the expiry of six months has to be undertaken by the executive. The 1972 amendments to AFSPA extended the power to declare an area disturbed to the Central Government whereas in the 1958 version of AFSPA, only the state Governor had the power

 

 

10. With reference to speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
11. Whenever he/she is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he/she automatically becomes its chairman.
12. His work and conduct cannot be discussed and criticised in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer & Explanation

2. d) Neither 1 nor 2. The speaker appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha and supervises their functioning. He himself is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the Rules Committee and the General Purpose Committee.His work and conduct cannot be discussed and criticised in the Lok Sabha except on a substantive motion. Whenever he/she is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he/she automatically becomes its chairman – This statement is true for deputy speaker of Lok Sabha.

 

 

11. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) performs which of the following function?
12. examination of appropriation and finance accounts of the Union Government.
13. suggesting alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency in administration.
14. examination of the accounts of state corporations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 1 and 2 only
3. c) 1 and 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer & Explanation

1. c) 1 and 3 only.

 

Suggesting alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency in administration is the function of Estimate Committee.

 

Although the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, some provisions of the constitution came into force on November 26, 1949 itself. These included

 

12. Although the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, some provisions of the constitution came into force on November 26, 1949 itself. These included
13. Fundamental Rights
14. Citizenship
15. Elections

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 1 and 3 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer & Explanation

1. c) 2 and 3 only.

Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, temporary and transitional provisions, and short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 came into force on November 26, 1949 itself. The remaining provisions (the major part) of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. This day is referred to in the Constitution as the ‘date of its commencement’, and celebrated as the Republic Day.

 

13. On a question whether a member of parliament (MP) is subject to any of the disqualification under Representation of People’s Act, 1951 whose decision is final?
14. a) President
15. b) High Court
16. c) Supreme Court
17. d) Election Commission of India

Answer & Explanation

1. a) President.

On the question whether a member is subject to any of the disqualifications under ROPA, 1951, the president’s decision is final. However, he should obtain the opinion of the election commission and act accordingly.

 

14. The Election Commission of India consists of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two election commissioners (EC). With regard to these two officials, which of the following is/are correct?
15. CEC and EC receive equal salary.
16. CEC and EC are provided with security of tenure.
17. In case of difference of opinion amongst them, the view of CEC prevails.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 1 and 2 only
3. c) 1 and 3 only
4. d) 2 and 3 only

 

Answer & Explanation

1. a) 1 only.

The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority. Only the chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. Election commissioners can be removed from office on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.

 

15. The original jurisdiction of the High Court includes:
16. disputes related to the election of MPs
17. disputes related to the election of MLAs
18. cases related to murder

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer & Explanation

1. a) 1 and 2 only.

Original jurisdiction means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. High courts do not have any original criminal jurisdiction and thus cases related to murders can be taken to High court only as appeal. The original jurisdiction includes – (a) Matters of admirality, will, marriage, divorce, company laws and contempt of court. (b) Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures. (c) Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection. (d) Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens. (e) Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the Constitution to its own file

 

16. With reference to Vice-President of India ,consider the following statements :
17. If the Vice-President suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy

should be held within six months.

2. A Vice-President can be removed on the grounds of violation of constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer & Explanation

2. d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Both the statements are true for President and not VP. If the Vice-President suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy should be held as soon as possible. The constitution mentions no ground for removal of VP

 

17. In India, the council of ministers have:
18. Individual responsibility
19. legal responsibility
20. collective responsibility

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 3 only
2. b) 2 and 3 only
3. c) 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer & Explanation

1. a) 1 and 3 only.

The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of ommission and commission. Article 75 contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president. In India there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of a minister. It is not required that an order of the President for a public act should be countersigned by a minister

 

18. Which of the following bodies concerned with Inter-State relations are constitutional?
19. River water tribunals
20. Inter-State Councils
21. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) None

Answer & Explanation

1. b) 2 only.

River water tribunals are setup under an act and therefore are not constitutional. Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956). The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley.Inter-State Councils are conState reorganisation act, 1956 and are thus not costitutional body under article 263. Zonal councils were setup under the State reorganisation act, 1956 and are thus not constitutional

 

19. The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on which of the following matters?
20. public order
21. police
22. land

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) 3 only
4. d) None

 

Answer & Explanation

1. d) None.

The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List except the three matters of the State List, that is, public order, police and land. Therefore, critics have often called Delhi no more than a senior municipality

 

20. With reference to Finance Commission (FC), consider the following statements :
21. As the FC is a constitutional body, its recommendations are binding on the government.
22. The chairman of a FC is not eligible for reappointment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer & Explanation

2. d) Neither 1 nor 2.

The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement

 

 

21. Which of these is/ are constitutional posts?
22. Special officer for linguistic minorities
23. Advocate general
24. Solicitor general

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 1 and 3 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer & Explanation

1. a) 1 and 2 only.

Special officer for linguistic minorities is provided for in article 350-B. Advocate general of a state is provided under article 165. Solicitor general is not a constitutional post. Article 76 provides only for attorney general and not solicitor general.

 

22. Consider the following statements about delimitation commission:
23. Delimitation commission is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
24. The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be challenged in any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer & Explanation

1. b) 2 only.

Delimitation commission is a statutory body formed under Delimitation commission act,1972 . The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be challenged in any court.

 

 

23. In a democracy, civil services plays an important role in
24. policy making
25. policy implementation
26. socio-economic development

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 1 and 3 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer & Explanation

3. d) 1, 2 and 3.

Policy implementation and socio -economic development is understood. Some might think how policy making is a role of civil servants. Remember, policies are made on the basis of information and expert knowledge. Civil servants on account of their information and expertise advise politicians on policy making. In reality, its the civil servants that make policies. They can conceal or exaggerate information to drive policy in a particular direction.

 

 

24. Consider the following statements about NPT and CTBT:
25. India has neither signed NPT nor ratified it.
26. India has signed CTBT but not yet ratified it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer & Explanation

1. a) 1 only.

India has neither signed nor ratified either NPT or CTBT.

 

 

25. Wassenar arrangement seeks to bring transparency in the export of
26. conventional arms
27. dual-use goods
28. small arms and light weapons
29. military aircraft

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
4. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Answer & Explanation

4. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

The Wassenaar Arrangement has been established for promoting transparency and greater responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies. Every six months member countries exchange information on deliveries of conventional arms to non-Wassenaar members that fall under eight broad weapons categories: battle tanks, armored combat vehicles (ACVs), large-caliber artillery, military aircraft, military helicopters, warships, missiles or missile systems, and small arms and light weapons.

 

26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List-I                                     List-II

(Name of the Writ)          (Issued for)

1. Mandamus    To  quash  the  order  of a

lower judiciary which it made by contravening natural justice

2. Prohibition    A National Highway

Authority refuses to open a road for traffic

3. Certiorari    A scam unearthed in

appointment of an under- qualified officer in a deputation service

4. Quo Warranto    A   tribunal   functions  in

violation of the prescribed procedure

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A       B         C         D

 

(a)	3	4	1	2
(b)	3	1	4	2
(c)	2	4	1	3
(d)	2	1	4	3

Answer & Explanation

c)

Anything that is issued under an authority is a writ. Orders, warrants, directions etc. issued under authority are examples of writs. There are five major types of writs viz. habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari.

 

1.Habeas Corpus literally means ‘to have the body of’. Via this writ, the court can cause any person who has been detained or imprisoned to be physically brought before the court.

 

2. Mandamus means “we command”.  This writ is a command issued by court to a public official, public body, corporation, inferior court, tribunal or government asking them to perform their duties which they have refused to perform. Due to this, Mandamus is called a “wakening call” and it awakes the sleeping authorities to perform their duty. Mandamus thus demands an activity and sets the authority in action. Mandamus cannot be issued against the following:

• a private individual or private body.
• if the duty in question is discretionary and not mandatory.
• against president or governors of state
• against a working chief justice
• to enforce some kind of private contract.

A petition for writ of mandamus can be filed by any person who seeks a legal duty to be performed by a person or a body. Such a filing person must have real or special interest in the subject matter and must have legal right to do so.

3. Prohibition

The writ of prohibition means that the Supreme Court and High Courts may prohibit the lower courts such as special tribunals, magistrates, commissions, and other judiciary officers who are doing something which exceeds to their jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rule of natural justice. For example if a judicial officer has personal interest in a case, it may hamper the decision and the course of natural justice.

 

Difference between Mandamus and Prohibition

• While Mandamus directs activity, Prohibition directs inactivity.
• While Mandamus can be issued against any public official, public body, corporation, inferior court, tribunal or government; prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and NOT against administrative authorities, legislative bodies

 

4. Certiorari

Certiorari means to “certify”. It’s a writ that orders to move a suit from an inferior court to superior court. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with that to itself or squash its order. This is generally done because superior court believes that either the inferior court had no jurisdiction or committed an error of law. Thus, certiorari is a kind of curative writ.

 

5. Quo warranto

Quo warranto means “by what warrant”? This writ is issued to enquire into legality of the claim of a person or public office. It restrains the person or authority to act in an office which he / she is not entitled to; and thus stops usurpation of public office by anyone. This writ is applicable to the public offices only and not to private offices.

 

27. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
28. 42nd amendment to the Constitution of India gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental
29. Minerva Mills case ruled that there has to be a balance between Part III and Part IV of the Constitution.
30. National Commission for Review of the Constitution has recommended that Directive Principles be made

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

 

ANSWER & EXPLANATION

ANS: (a):

Article 31C was inserted by 25th amendment and undeterred by Keshavananda Judgement of declaring a part of the article being invalid, the Parliament enacted 42nd amendment and enlarged the scope of the article to include all directive principles and not just article 39 (b) and (c).

Minerva Mills case (1980) declared the harmonial balance between FR and DPSP is an essential feature of  the basic structure of the Constitution.

The       National         Commission recommended that the heading of  Part IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as “DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY  &

ACTION”. It suggested for incorporation of certain new articles as new directives in the Part IV!!.

 

28. According to the Government of India Act, 1935, which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Provincial Executive?
29. The executive authority of the Province was vested in the Governor
30. The Council of Ministers to advise the Governor
31. The Governor could be removed by a vote of no confidence of the Provincial Legislature

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• 1 and 2
• 1 and 3
• 2 and 3
• 2 only

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (a)

29. National Crop Insurance Programme is approved by merging the following Programmes
30. National Agriculture Insurance scheme(NAIS)
31. Modified National    Agriculture        Insurance scheme(MNAIS)
32. Weather Based                Crop     Insurance       Scheme (WBCIS)
33. Coconut Palm Insurance Scheme(CPIS)

 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

• 2 and 3
• 1, 2 and 4
• 1, 2 and 3
• 2, 3 and 4

 

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (d)

 

 

30. Which of the following goals, if sought to implemented through laws, could enable the courts to upheld such legislations on the ground that they are made to implement the goal of socio-economic justice under the Indian Constitution?

 

1. to remove economic inequalities
2. to provide a decent standard of living to the working people
3. to protect the interests of the weaker sections of the society
4. to ensure dignity of individuals

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• 2 and 4 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3 only

(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (d) EXP:

Understanding the meaning of the philosophies of ‘social justice’ and ‘economic justice’ of the Preamble will enable you to identify the justification of the answer.

 

31. The scope of ‘life and personal liberty,’ as envisages in Article 21 of the Constitution of India, has expanded considerably over the years. Which one of the following can still not be subject of this protection?

• The right to good health
• The right of a bonded labour to rehabilitation after release
• The right, under a settlement, to claim bonus or dearness allowance
• The right to livelihood by means which are not illegal, immoral or opposed to public Policy

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (c) EXP:

Refer list of rights that judiciary has interpreted under Right to Life under Article 21.

 

32. When the government enacts policies that provides for positive discrimination in favour of vulnerable sections of the populace, which of the following Article/s could have been invoked to justify such policies?
33. Article 14
34. Article 15

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (c) EXP:

• Article 14 provides for equal protection of law as a FR. Which in turn necessitates the government to enact special provisions for upliftment of the weaker sections. Similarly exceptions/limitations of article 15 provides for special provisions for the benefit and development of weaker sections

 

33. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of the Constitution of India?
34. The Constitution received signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly on 26 November,
35. The provisions relating to citizenship were given immediate effect from 26 November, 1949.

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code :

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor

 

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (c) EXP:

Though, the constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, some provisions relating to Citizenship, Elections, provisional parliament, temporary & transitional provisions were given immediate effect on 26 November 1949. The articles which came into force on 26 November 1949 included articles 5, 6, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 372, 388, 391, 392, and 393. Out of them, citizenship was most important and had to immediately come into force to constitutionally handle the refugee crisis due to partition of India.

 

34. What is the subject of 91st Constitutional Amendment Act?
35. Providing for the size of the Council of Ministers
36. Declaring that   the   quitting   of  1/3rd    of  the

members from parent party to another party upon elected as members of legislatures, amount to defection.

3. If 2/3rd of members of one party quits from  the

party and joins another party upon elected as a members of the legislature, it is ‘merger’ and does not amount to defection.

Choose the correct statements from below.

• 1 only
• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (b) EXP:

• Statement 3 was already a part of anti-defection law, which was inserted b 52nd Amendment

 

 

 

35. Consider the following statements-

1. Department of space is under the ministry of science
2. Department of atomic energy is under PMO
3. National authority on chemical weapon is headed by the Cabinet secretary
4. Department of land resource is under the ministry of road and

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

• 1 and 3 only
• 2 only
• 1 and 4 only
• 2 and3 only

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (c) EXP:

Dept of space is under PMO and Dept of land resource is under rural ministry

 

36. How can an amendment in a list in the Seventh schedule of Constitution of India be initiated?

If the Bill seeding amendment is passed in either House of Parliament by –

• A majority of the total membership of that House
• A majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two- thirds of the members present and
• (b) above and the amendment shall require to be ratified by the Legislatures of the State not less than one-half of the States
• (b) above and the amendment shall require to be ratified by the Legislatures of the State not less than one-half of the States within two years

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (c) EXP:

Factual question.

37. Directive Principles of State Policy direct the state for which of the following?
38. To secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the
39. Separation of judiciary from executive
40. To improve public health

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

 

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (d) EXP:

• Statement 1 – Article 38
• Statement 2 – Article 50
• Statement 3 – Article 47

 

38. Consider the following statements

1. India is the Second largest producer of fish in the world after
2. India contributes more production of share from marine fisheries than inland fisheries and aquaculture.

Which of the above statements is/are Not correct?

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• NONE

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (a) EXP:

India ranks 2nd after China. 24.7% in warm fresh water; 3.3% in cold water; 6.5% estuaries and the rest 65.5% in the sea.

 

 

39. The doctrine of ‘Judicial review’ is expressed in

• Article 32
• Article 226
• Both 32 and 226
• Article 13

 

ANSWER & EXPLANATION

ANS (d)

Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with (or) in derogation of any of the F.R. shall be void. In other words it expressively provides for the doctrine of judicial review. This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that can declare a law unconstitutional & invalid on the ground of  contravention of any of the fundamental rights.

 

 

40. Consider the following immunities enjoyed by the President and Governor and choose the wrong statement?

 

• The President (or) Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his
• No civil proceedings against the President (or) Governor shall be instituted during his term of office in any
• No process for the arrest imprisonment of the President (or) Governor shall be issued from any court during his term of
• Criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the President (or) Governor only with the two months prior notice during his term of

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (b & d) EXP:

Under Article 361 No criminal proceedings against governor (or) president during his term of office

 

41. Which of the following is the most appropriate meaning of ‘Secular’ as enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

• There is no religion of the State
• Indians have religious freedom
• Religion is a private affair of individuals
• India accommodates all religions

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (a) EXP:

Though all seems to fall into the meaning and interpretation of secularism, the question is asking to find out the most appropriate one.

 

42. Consider the following statements with reference to the Preamble to the Constitution.
    1. The Preamble is a modified version of the Poorna Swaraj pledge of Indian National Congress.

 

2. The Preamble is neither a part of the basic structure of the Constitution nor a justiceable part of the

 

3. The Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati Case held that the Preamble can be amended subject to the doctrine of “Basic Structure of the Constitution”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 3 only
• None of the above

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (c) EXP:

 

The Preamble is a part of basic structure of the Constitution, as expounded by the Keshavananda Bharathi Case, 1973

43. Consider the following factors with respect to the Parliament of India.
44. Written nature of the Constitution
45. Federal system of Government
46. System of Judicial Review
47. Fundamental Rights

Which of the factors mentioned above limit the sovereignty of the Indian Parliament?

• 1, 2 and 3 only
• 3 only
• 1, 2 and 4 only
• ALL

 

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (d) EXP:

Written Constitution – it is the reason why even though India adopted Parliamentary form of Government as like that of Britain, the Indian Parliament is not sovereign in the British sense. Its sovereignty is defined and limited by the Constitution itself, which was reinforced in the Keshavananda case through basic structure doctrine.

Federal division of power in the seventh schedule has left Parliament only to legislate on Union subject and the Concurrent subject, but with certain limitations. It cannot legislate on the State subject unless under some exceptional circumstances.

Judicial Review since Menaka Gandhi case, 1978 is based on the due process of law method. Which inturn limited the Parliament’s sovereignty. Moreover Keshavananda case enabled SC to review Constitutional Amendment acts passed by Parliament as well.

 

44. Consider the following Statements:
    4. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-IN), CERT-In is the national nodal agency setup under the Information Technology Act 2013, to respond computer security incidents
    5. National Cyber Security Policy was released in 2000
    6. C-MET (Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology) has three centres at Pune, Hyderabad and

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

• 1 and 3 only
• 3 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (b) EXP:

CERT-In is the national nodal agency setup under the Information Technology Act 2004

NCSP is a policy framework of Deity released in 2013.

45 Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November, because this date is referred in the Constitution as the date of its
2. Constitution specifies  26th  November  1949 as

the date of adoption of the Constitution.

3. Constitution specifies 26th January 1950 as the date of official enforcement of the

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 2 only
• 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (c) EXP:

Only statement 2 is true and other statements are imaginary!!!

 

46. Major initiatives envisaged to make ‘Digital India” campaign as a success includes
47. Communication infrastructure and services
48. Products like digital lockers, e-sign and e-hospital/ORS
49. Portals and apps
50. Opening of research institutions
51. Important Policies

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

• 1, 2 and 3 only
• 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
• 3 only
• All of the above

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (d)

 

47. Which one of the following Directive Principles was not originally provided for in the Constitution of India?
48. Citizen’s right to an adequate means of livelihood
49. Free legal aid
50. Free and compulsory education to children under 14 years of age
51. Protection of environment
52. Participation of workers in the management of industries
53. Minimising the inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities among individuals

Choose the correct statements.

• 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
• 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
• 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

 

ANSWER & EXPLANATION (c) EXP:

Art 39 – Citizen’s right to an  adequate

means of livelihood

Art 39A – Free legal aid – 42nd Amendment, 1976

Art 45 of Original Constitution, until relocated to Fundamental Right  as 21A – Free and compulsory education to children under 14 years of age

Art 48A – Protection of environment –

42nd Amendment, 1976

Art 43A – Participation of workers in the management of industries – 42nd Amendment, 1976

Art 38 (2) – Minimising the inequalities in income,  status, facilities   and   opportunities    among individuals – 44th Amendment, 1978

 

48. Who among the following carries out Swachh Survekshan rankings in rural areas?

• The Ministry of Rural Development
• Ministryof Social Justice      and Empowerment
• Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

(d)Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation

Answer & Explanation d

49. Burning biomass for energy does not release
50. sulphur
51. mercury
52. nitrogen

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer & Explanation

1. a) 1 and 2 only.

Unlike the burning of coal, which releases sulphur and mercury, biomass burning does not release them. It however releases nitrogen contained within the biomass.

50. There are four fundamental forces in the universe.
51. electromagnetic force.
52. gravitational force.
53. strong nuclear force.
54. weak nuclear force.

The correct order of these forces from strongest to weakest is

1. a) 2 3 4 1
2. b) 2 1 3 4
3. c) 1 3 4 2
4. d) 3 1 4 2

 

Answer & Explanation

2. d) 3 1 4 2.

Gravitational force is the weakest among the fundamental forces. There are four fundamental forces (that we know of) in our universe: Strong Nuclear, Electromagnetic, Weak Nuclear and Gravitational. The strongest one is the Strong Nuclear force, which is responsible for keeping the nuclei of atoms together. About one hundred times weaker than the strong nuclear force is the electromagnetic one. This is the strongest force that we experience in our everyday lives. In fact, whenever we touch anything we experience the Electromagnetic force. The electrons in our skin repel electrons in whatever we touch through this force. The Weak Nuclear force is the one responsible for most decays of particles and nuclei – which is where radioactivity comes from. This force is about 10 billion times weaker than the Electromagnetic force. The weakest of all is the Gravitational force. In fact, Gravitational force is 10 thousand billion billion billion billion times weaker than the Electromagnetic force.